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:1: BEE(311) & BMEC(312). QUESTION PAPER BOOKLET CODE : A BEE(311) & BMEC(312). Question Paper Booklet No. Roll No. : Time Allowed: 1 hour 30 minutes Maximum Marks : 200. Total Number of Questions: 100 (50 Questions in each Paper) Total No. of Printed Pages : 16. Instructions : 1. Candidates should use blue/black ballpoint pen ONLY to fill-in all the required information in OMR Answer Sheet and this Question Paper Booklet. 2. Answer Sheet cannot be taken out from the Examination Hall by the examinees and the same is required to be properly handed over to the Invigilator/Supervisory staff on duty and acknowledgement be obtained for doing so on the Admit Card before leaving the Examination Hall. 3. Candidates are required to correctly fill-in the Question Paper Booklet Code and the Question Paper Booklet No. (as mentioned on the top of this booklet) in the OMR Answer Sheet, as the same will be taken as final for result computation.

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1 :1: BEE(311) & BMEC(312). QUESTION PAPER BOOKLET CODE : A BEE(311) & BMEC(312). Question Paper Booklet No. Roll No. : Time Allowed: 1 hour 30 minutes Maximum Marks : 200. Total Number of Questions: 100 (50 Questions in each Paper) Total No. of Printed Pages : 16. Instructions : 1. Candidates should use blue/black ballpoint pen ONLY to fill-in all the required information in OMR Answer Sheet and this Question Paper Booklet. 2. Answer Sheet cannot be taken out from the Examination Hall by the examinees and the same is required to be properly handed over to the Invigilator/Supervisory staff on duty and acknowledgement be obtained for doing so on the Admit Card before leaving the Examination Hall. 3. Candidates are required to correctly fill-in the Question Paper Booklet Code and the Question Paper Booklet No. (as mentioned on the top of this booklet) in the OMR Answer Sheet, as the same will be taken as final for result computation.

2 Institute shall not undertake any responsibility for making correction(s) at later stage. 4. This Question Paper Booklet consists of two papers, each having 50 questions. All questions are compulsory and carry TWO marks each. There will be no negative marking for wrong answers. 5. Seal of this Question Paper Booklet MUST NOT be opened before the specified time of examination. 6. Immediately on opening of Question Paper Booklet, candidates should ensure that it contains 100 Questions in total (50 Questions in each Paper) and none of its page is missing/misprinted. In case of any discrepancy, the booklet shall be replaced at once. 7. Each question is followed by four alternative answers marked as A, B, C and D. Candidates shall choose one most appropriate answer to each question and mark the same in the OMR Answer Sheet by darkening the appropriate circle only in the manner as prescribed in the OMR Answer Sheet.

3 8. Darkening of more than one circle corresponding to any question or leaving all the circles blank or overwriting/cutting any answer(s) shall be taken as wrong answer for computation of result. Ticking/marking/writing of answer(s) in the Question Paper Booklet shall not be considered in any circumstance for award of marks. The Institute shall neither entertain any claim nor be liable to respond to any of the query in the aforesaid matter. 9. Rough work, if any, should be done only on the space provided in this Question Paper Booklet. 10. The Copyright of this Question Paper Booklet and Multiple Choice Questions (MCQs) contained therein solely vests with the Institute. 11. Candidates are required to secure a minimum of 40% marks in each paper separately and 50% marks in aggregate of all the papers put together to Pass Foundation Programme Examination.

4 (SIGNATURE OF CANDIDATE). 1/2013/BEE & BMEC ANSWERS MARKED IN THE OMR ANSWER SHEET SHALL ONLY BE EXAMINED 2/ 1. BEE(311) & BMEC(312) :2: Space for Rough Work 1/2013/BEE & BMEC ANSWERS MARKED IN THE OMR ANSWER SHEET SHALL ONLY BE EXAMINED Contd .. :3: BEE(311) & BMEC(312). PAPER 1 (Q. No. 1 to 50). BUSINESS ENVIRONMENT AND ENTREPRENEURSHIP. PART A. BUSINESS ENVIRONMENT. 1. Which one of the following is the oldest 5. Value system of an organisation have an and simplest form of organisation ? impact on its : (A) Functional organisation I. Objectives (B) Committee organisation II. Policies (C) Line and staff organisation III. Practices (D) Line organisation. IV. Profit The correct option is . 2. Which one of the following shows a big (A) I and II only picture of what a company wants to achieve (B) I, II and III only in future ? (C) II, III and IV only (A) Vision statement (D) I, II III and IV.

5 (B) Mission statement (C) Value statement 6. Which one of the following is a great (D) Quality statement. concern for E-COMMERCE ? (A) Speed 3. Which among the following is one of the (B) Quality largest Job providers in India ? (C) Security risk (A) Network marketing (D) Maintenance cost. (B) Business process outsourcing (C) Medical tourism 7. Why co-operative marketing society is (D) Film industry. formed ? (A) To protect the interest of general 4. Which one of the following is treated as a consumers separate legal entity different from its (B) To sell the product of small farmers members ? and producers (A) Sole proprietorship (C) To protect the interest of small (B) Hindu undivided family producers (C) Partnership (D) To provide financial support to the (D) Limited liability partnership. members. 1/2013/BEE & BMEC ANSWERS MARKED IN THE OMR ANSWER SHEET SHALL ONLY BE EXAMINED 2/ 2.

6 BEE(311) & BMEC(312) :4: 8. The definition of Micro, Small and 12. Which among the following are the key Medium Enterprises (MSMEs) in India drivers of globalisation ? is based on (A) Government action, exchange rates, (A) Total sales of the unit competition and socio-demographic factors (B) Investment in machines and (B) Market convergence, competition, equipments exchange rates and cost advantages (C) Market coverage (C) Cost advantages, government action, (D) Export turnover. economic cycles and competition (D) Market, cost, competition and government policies. 9. Which one of the following is not a part of Porter's generic strategy ? 13. In marketing, a distinctive group of (A) Focus consumers is known as . (B) Cost leadership (A) A class (C) Differentiation strategy (B) A segment (D) Market segmentation. (C) An emerging market (D) None of the above.

7 10. Which one of the following is not a part of 'marketing mix'? 14. Which one of the following is a push factor influencing the internationalisation of a (A) Planning company ? (B) Product (A) Difficulty in finding skilled staff in the (C) Price home country (B) The need to be close to key resources (D) Place. (C) Low-cost labour in other countries (D) Financial incentives from governments 11. The abbreviation BIFR with reference to in emerging markets. sick companies in India means . (A) Board for Indian Financial Reserves 15. Foundation of public enterprises in India (B) Board for Industrial and Financial was laid down by . Resources (A) Indira Gandhi (C) Board for Industrial and Financial (B) Jawaharlal Nehru Reconstruction (C) Dr. Rajendra Prasad (D) Board for International Fund Reserves. (D) Dr. S. Radhakrishnan. 1/2013/BEE & BMEC ANSWERS MARKED IN THE OMR ANSWER SHEET SHALL ONLY BE EXAMINED Contd.

8 :5: BEE(311) & BMEC(312). PART B. BUSINESS LAWS. 16. What is the meaning of maxim ultra vires ? 21. In a company who conceives the idea of (A) An accomplished act the business ? (B) Within the powers (A) Promoters (C) Beyond the powers (B) Auditors (C) Directors (D) With the guilty mind. (D) Shareholders. 17. Which kind of precedent from the following 22. Voidable contract means . creates and applies a new rule of law ? (A) Parties are incompetent to contract (A) Declaratory (B) Free consent of the parties is missing (B) Persuasive (C) Consideration is inadequate (C) Absolutely authoritative (D) The object of contract is expressly (D) Original. declared void by the act itself. 18. Notice for calling a statutory meeting of a 23. An agreement in restraint of marriage . company should be given within a period (A) Is voidable at the option of the of not less than promisor (A) 21 clear days (B) Is voidable at the option of the (B) 14 clear days promisee (C) Is expressly declared as void (C) 7 clear days (D) Cannot be enforced as there is no (D) None of the above.

9 Privity of contract. 19. In a company maximum time difference 24. For acceptance to be considered as valid between two board meetings is it must . (A) 3 months (A) Be absolute (B) 4 months (B) Be unqualified (C) 6 months (C) Be both absolute and unqualified (D) 5 months. (D) Be conditional. 20. Which one of the following company must 25. A person whose behaviour arouses hold statutory meeting ? misunderstanding that he is a partner in the (A) Private company firm but actually he is not, is called . (A) Nominal partner (B) Public company having share capital (B) Dormant partner (C) Government company (C) Ostensible partner (D) Public company not having share (D) Partner by estoppel. capital. 1/2013/BEE & BMEC ANSWERS MARKED IN THE OMR ANSWER SHEET SHALL ONLY BE EXAMINED BEE(311) & BMEC(312) :6: 26. Which one of the following cannot be 31. An unpaid seller of goods has a right.

10 Claimed as a matter of right by a partner ? (A) Against the buyer only (A) To have access to books of account (B) Against both the buyer and the goods (B) To take part in the conduct of the business (C) Against the goods only (C) To share the profits (D) None of the above. (D) To receive remuneration. 32. A bill of exchange contains a/an . 27. The phrase quantum meruit literally (A) Unconditional undertaking means . (A) As much as earned or reasonable (B) Unconditional order remuneration (C) Conditional undertaking (B) The fact in itself (D) Conditional order. (C) A contract for sale (D) As much as is gained. 33. Which one of the following is not an example of material alteration as per 28. According to Section 25 of the Indian section 87 of the Negotiable Instruments Partnership Act, 1932, the liability of a Act, 1881 ? partner is . (A) Joint (A) Alteration of the date of instrument (B) Several (B) Alteration of the sum payable (C) Joint and several (C) Alteration in the time of payment (D) None of the above.


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